Grand Unified Theory
António Marques · 25 Aug 2010, 20:32
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From: entonio at gmail.com (=?UTF-8?B?QW50w7NuaW8gTWFycXVlcw==?=) Date: Wed, 25 Aug 2010 21:32:14 +0100 Subject: (urth) Grand Unified Theory In-Reply-To: <AANLkTi=eHkP5AaApMqw+vm8feLGyQaN=v1symwW8cRav at mail.gmail.com> References: <SNT123-W15E8699921C55C8728319CCF840 at phx.gbl> <4C752BA3.5010103 at gmail.com> <4C753691.7090403 at gmail.com> <872020F6-A190-4874-BF1C-F24D984358A7 at liftingfaces.com> <AANLkTi=eHkP5AaApMqw+vm8feLGyQaN=v1symwW8cRav at mail.gmail.com> Message-ID: <4C757DCE.5060709 at gmail.com> Dan'l Danehy-Oakes wrote: > I deeply mistrust anyone who claims to know how the ancients -- ANY > ancients -- pronounced things. Unless the Greeks left a text > (something like the opening movement of de Saussure's _Cours de > Linguistique Generale_) that actually describes the mouth and throat > movements involved in each letter, But of course such works do exist, even if not using modern terminology and not always painting a complete picture. And much can be gathered from the subsequent evolution and loawords in other languages. F.i. greek <y> is borrowed into popular latin as <u> (krypth > crupta)*. (*) Their descendents in english being crypt and grotto, the first borrowed from greek by people who could make sense of greek texts, the second from italian by people who could speak at least some italian. > the most we have is a high probability that, say, the kappa was > pronounced like the modern English kay. Was psyche pronounced > SOO-kie? I don't know. But I and a lot of others do: not in any relevant dialect. Rather psoo-GHAY, to use the notation we've all come to loathe. Nobody can tell exactly how it was pronounced, if nothing else because pronunciations varied according to region and epoch, as in any other language. But the issue here is not how T U Ph W~ N was pronounced, it's how it couldn't be. And there is no known dialect in which U could be [ai] as it is in english. And if it wasn't [ai], it's hard to see how it could have become [ai] in the asiatic language english took typhoon from. NB it did become [ai] in english typhon, but only because it was a spelling pronunciation based on a mistaken value for greek <?>. I haven't seen anyone propose such an unnatural route for typhoon. The best I've seen so far is below, though it gives no evidence at all for the greek connection: http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/typhoon typhoon the modern word represents a coincidence and convergence of at least two unrelated words of similar sound and sense. Tiphon "violent storm, whirlwind, tornado" is recorded from 1555, from Gk. typhon "whirlwind," personified as a giant, father of the winds, perhaps from typhein "to smoke." The meaning "cyclone, violent hurricane of India or the China Seas" (1588) is first recorded in T. Hickock's translation of an account in Italian of a voyage to the East Indies by C?sar Frederick, a merchant of Venice, probably borrowed from, or infl. by, Chinese (Cantonese) tai fung "a great wind," from tu "big" + feng "wind;" name given to violent cyclonic storms in the China seas. A third possibility is tufan, a word in Arabic, Persian and Hindi meaning "big cyclonic storm" (and the source of Port. tufao ), which may be from Gk. typhon but commonly is said to be a noun of action from Arabic tafa "to turn round." Online Etymology Dictionary, ? 2010 Douglas Harper If you ask me, the probability is for arabic tufan for the portuguese version and cantonese tai fung for the english one. The english one having been folk etymologised as coming from greek tufwn, which in latin is typhon, thus getting its <y>.
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